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Originally Posted by The One and Only...
I believe that Kant's moral principle only applies to acts- and homosexual acts can be changed, even if homosexuality cannot.
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Good. But even if we assume that everyone participates in homosexual acts, this does not preclude people having heterosexual acts - it is obvious that it is not a logical contradiction to have both.
It's been a while since I've read Kant, so I don't know if the categorical imperative insists on an exclusive universality. My guess is no, but I'm not 100% sure.
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