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Mocker
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Join Date: Feb 2003
Location: Mount Fuji
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Dec 28th, 2003, 02:48 AM
No because even if the two were the same (they aren't) the fact that you choose to use such a definition suggests historical and philosophical semiotic value the layman statement doesn't. For example, for me when a person says "I am the only one that exists", it is quite different from a person that says "I am a solipsist" even for the simple fact that the latter is more likely to be familiar with the finer points of said philosophical concept, since he can name it.
But the more important reason remains that no philosophical concept can be summed up in a layman-friendly concise sentence.
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