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Originally Posted by ArtificialBrandon
Another thought:
Defenders of free will often cite man's "inherent feeling of freedom" as if it is, and always has been, a fundamental part of being human. But why do we assume that this "feeling of freedom" is itself not a conditioned response? After all, from a very early age, we are constantly told by parents, religious officials, and authority figures that we are free and totally responsible.
And if it were such a "natural" feeling, why is that many, if not all of the earliest peoples were fatalistic in their worldview?
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Interesting question. I think one has to distinguish feelings from worldviews (which are certainly not feelings). I'm not sure how to "feel" determined, especially as you said, determining causation is very problematic. If the sensation of a "free" conscious will is an emotion of some sort, then it's innate. (Like you can modulate happiness but you don't "teach" someone that happiness).
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