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Originally Posted by The One and Only...
I've read some Camus, and he seems to affirm that revolt has an objective meaning from the way he writes. He does not say that "I think revolt...", he says "Revolt...". Get what I'm saying?
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He writes that way for practical purposes only after he's forewarned against the bias in his introductions. Have you actually read the primary sources? In
the Myth of Sisyphus:
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Originally Posted by Camus
But it is useful at the same time to note that the absurd, hitherto taken as a conclusion, is considered in this essay as the starting-point. In this sense it may be said that there is something provisional in my commentary: one cannot prejudge the position it entails. There will be found here merely the description, in the pure state, of an intellectual malady. No metaphysic, no belief is involved in it for the moment. These are the limits and the only bias of this book. Certain personal experiences urge me to make this clear.
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And as Triad and I pointed out, he's not writing to everyone.
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