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BANNED
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Join Date: May 2000
Location: NO
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Aug 29th, 2004, 07:19 PM
I'm sorry, but coins from 200 bc being the first time that it was seen, besides on greek paprii for isopsephia back to close to 400 bc, doesnt do much to prove if they did it or not. I've read that argument like 75083567350 times, and it's just nothing. Especially since ancient hebrew and modern hebrew are way different. There's also nothing of when it began, or why.
The babylonians also widely used gematria by the 8th century , and wouldn't you know it? Hebrews used a form of assyro-babylonian sexagesimal, and before that the egyptian stuff. I'm going to have to study egypt now to find out what's up with their language, luckily i know someone who studies that culture religiously... I also believe the torah at some point passed through the hands of these particular cultures. Coincidence? Nope. Coincidence is for bitches.
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